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WBCS Prelims-2019 Indian Polity
Q1. Right to vote and to be elected in
India is a -
(A) Fundamental Right
(B) Natural Right
(C) Constitutional Right
(D) Legal Right
ANS: (C)
Constitutional Right
Q2. In the Constitution of India, promotion of
international peace and security is included in the -
(A) Preamble to the
Constitution.
(B) Directive Principles
of State Policy.
(C) Fundamental Duties.
(D) Ninth Schedule.
ANS: (B)
Directive Principles of State Policy.
Q3. What will follow if a Monetary Bill
is substantially amended by the Rajya Sabha?
(A) The Lok Sabha may
still proceed with the Bill, accepting or not accepting the recommendations of
the Rajya Sabha.
(B) The Lok Sabha cannot
consider the Bill further.
(C) The Lok Sabha may
send the Bill to the Rajya Sabha for reconsideration.
(D) The President may
call a joint sitting for passing the Bill.
ANS: (A) The Lok
Sabha may still proceed with the Bill, accepting or not accepting the
recommendations of the Rajya Sabha.
Q4. The idea of ‘Welfare State’ in the
Indian Constitution in enshrined in its
(A) Preamble
(B) Directive Principles
of State Policy
(C) Fundamental Rights.
(D) Seventh Schedule.
ANS: (B)
Directive Principles of State Policy
Q5. The fundamental object of ‘Panchayati
Raj’ system is to ensure which among the following?
(A) People’s
participation in development
(B) Political
accountability
(C) Democratic decentralization
(D) Financial mobilization
ANS: (C)
Democratic decentralization
Q6. The power to increase the number of
judges in the Supreme Court of India is
vested in -
(A) The President of
India
(B) The Parliament
(C) The Chief Justice of
India
(D) The Law Commission
ANS: (B) The
Parliament
Q7. Mark the correct date and year in
which the Indian Constitution came into
being forced -
(A) 15th August, 1947
(B) 24th July, 1948
(C) 20th January, 1951
(D) 26th January, 1950
ANS: (D) 26th
January, 1950
Q8. According to the Constitution of
India it is the duty of the President to present which of the following on the
desk of the Parliament —
1. Recommendations of
Union Finance Commission.
2. Report of the Public
Accounts Committee.
3. Report of the
Comptroller and Auditor General.
4. Report of the National
Scheduled Caste Commission.
Which of the statements given above
is/are correct?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 and
(C) 1, 3 and 4
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
ANS: (C) 1, 3 and
4
Q9. Which Article of the Constitution of India guarantees
to all citizens the freedom of speech and expression?
(A) Article 16
(B) Article 17
(C) Article 18
(D) Article 19
ANS: (D) Article
19
Q10. Which Schedule of the Constitution of India
distributes power between the Union and the States?
(A) First Schedule
(B) Second Schedule
(C) Sixth Schedule
(D) Seventh Schedule
ANS: (D) Seventh
Schedule
Q11. The eighty-sixth Amendment of the
Constitution of India altered a Directive Principle of the
Constitution to provide for -
(A) early childhood care
and education for all children until they complete the age of six years.
(B) the state to provide
free legal aid.
(C) encouraging village
panchayats,
(D) prohibiting
intoxicating drinks and drugs injurious to health.
ANS: (A) early
childhood care and education for all children until they complete the age of
six years.
Q12. District Judge in a
state are appointed by the -
(A) Governor
(B) Chief Justice of High
court
(C) Council of Ministers
of the state
(D) Advocate General of
the state
ANS: (A) Governor
Q13. The Impeachment of the President of
India can be initiated in -
(A) either House of the
Parliament.
(B) a joint sitting of
both the Houses of the Parliament.
(C) the Lok Sabha alone.
(D) the Rajya Sabha
alone.
ANS: (A) either
House of the Parliament.
Q14. Consider the following statements:
The Parliamentary Committee on Public
Accounts
1. consist of not more
than 25 members of the Lok Sabha.
2. examine public
expenditure not only from legal and formal point of view to discover technical
irregularities but also from the point of view of economy, prudence, wisdom and
propriety.
3. examine the report of
the Comptroller and Auditor General of India.
Which of the statements given above
is/are correct?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 and 3 only.
(C) 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3
ANS: (B) 2 and 3
only.
Q15. Power to grant pardons are enjoyed
by which of the following constitutional authorities?
(A) President
(B) President and
Governor of a State
(C) Governor
(D) Chief Justice of
Supreme Court of India
ANS: (B) President
and Governor of a State
Q16. Article 280 of the Indian
Constitution lays down the establishment of the -
(A) Planning Commission
(B) Inter-State Council
(C) Riter Waters Tribunal
(D) Finance Commission
ANS: (D) Finance
Commission
Q17. The Panchayati Raj System of India
has -
(A) One tier
(B) Two tiers
(C) Three tiers
(D) Four tiers
ANS: (C) Three
tiers
Q18. Which of the following Amendments of
the Indian Constitution is related to reservation of SC’s and ST’s and
representation of Anglo Indians in the Lok Sabha and State Assembly?
(A) 54th Amendment
(B) 63rd Amendment
(C) 111th Amendment
(D) 79th Amendment
ANS: (D) 79th
Amendment
Q19.The Constitution Bill (123rd
Amendment), 2017 deals with -
(A) empowers National
Commission on Backward Classes
(B) empowers National
Council for Backward Classes
(C) empowers National
Council for Schedule Castes
(D) empowers National
Commission for Schedule Castes
ANS: (A) empowers
National Commission on Backward Classes
Q20. Which section of the Indian Penal
Code deals with adultery?
(A) 496
(B) 497
(C) 498
(D) 499
ANS: (B) 497
Q21. Executive power of the state is
bestowed on the Governor by which article of the Indian Constitution?
(A) Article 156
(B) Article 155
(C) Article 154
(D) Article 153
ANS: (C) Article
154
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